Question & Answer

Devers Corporation issued $400,000 of 6% bonds on May 1, 2014. The bonds were dated January 1, 2014, and mature January 1, 2017, with interest payable July 1 and January 1. The bonds were issued at face value plus accrued interest. Prepare Devers’s journal entries for (a) the May 1 issuance, (b) the July 1 interest payment, and (c) the December 31 adjusting entry.

What is the qualified business income deduction, and how does it affect the tax rate on flow-through business entity income?

By what would we need to divide GDP in order to get a measure of labour productivity per hour?

Do you agree that, if some people gain and if no one loses, then this will be an ‘improvement’ in the well-being of society? Does it depend on who gains? Would it be possible for there to be an improvement in the well-being of society without there being a Pareto improvement?

This year, Justin B.’s share of S corporation income includes $4,000 of interest income, $5,000 of dividend income, and $40,000 of net income from the corporation’s professional service business activity.  a) Assume that Justin B. materially participates in the S corporation. How much of his S corporation income is potentially subject to the net investment income tax?

Part B: $187,222 computed as follows: Description Amount Explanation (1) AGI$207,000  From AGI deductions: a) and b) Medical expenses 0 Medical expenses in excess of 7.5 percent of AGI are deductible. See note A below. c) and d) State taxes 2,050 State income taxes paid last year are deductible ($1,800 withheld and $250 overpayment applied on last year’s return treated as paid last year. e) Real property taxes 3,200 Real property taxes deductible from AGI. Payment to developer is not a tax. f) Personal property taxes 200 Property tax on personal property based on value deductible from AGI g) Interest on loans secured by her home 12,300 Primary home loan and home equity loan deductible from AGI h) Charitable contributions 1,828 See note B below i) Investment expenses and tax return preparation fees 0 Nondeductible expenses j) Horse racing activities 0 Nondeductible hobby expenses k) Gambling losses 200 Gambling losses are limited to earnings from gambling deductible as a miscellaneous itemized deduction but not subject to 2% of AGI floor or phase out. (2) Total itemized deductions19,778 (3) Standard deduction 14,600 Single taxpayer (4) Greater of Itemized deductions or standard deduction 19,778 Greater of (2) or (3). Shauna should choose to itemize deductions. Taxable income $187,222 (1) − (4) Note A: $0. Medical expenses = $4,680 (medical expenses for broken ankle), + $24 (115 miles × 21¢ per mile) + 3,400 (unreimbursed health insurance premiums) + 3,000 (Lasik eye surgery) + 450 (other medical expenses) − $15,525 (AGI of 207,000 × 7.5 percent) < $0. Because 7.5 percent of Shauna’s AGI exceeds her total medical expenses, Shauna is unable to deduct any medical expenses. Note B: $1,828. Capital gain property generally in the form of stock is deductible at FMV; Thus, Shauna can deduct $1,000 for her ZYX stock donation to the Red Cross. Cash contributions of $300 are fully deductible. Religious artifacts are used by church in its normal function as a non-profit organization and thus are deductible at FMV of $500. Finally, Shauna may deduct $28 (as a cash donation) expense for her charitable mileage (200 miles × 14¢ per mile). Note that the value of services donated is not deductible. Accordingly, Shauna’s charitable contribution deduction is $1,828 (1,000 + 300 + 500 + 28). Shauna need not be concerned about the AGI-based limitations on her contributions because her AGI is relatively high and her contributions are relatively low.

1. If production were at point a in Figure 24.8, describe the process whereby equilibrium at point P1C1 would be restored under perfect competition. 2. Why would production be unlikely to take place at P1C1 if competition were not perfect?

Kalin Corporation had 2014 net income of $1,000,000. During 2014, Kalin paid a dividend of $2 per share on 100,000 shares of preferred stock. During 2014, Kalin had outstanding 250,000 shares of common stock. Compute Kalin’s 2014 earnings per share.

Under what circumstances might a new entrant succeed in the market for a product, despite existing firms benefiting from economies of scale?

There are 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. Each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the correct number of answers reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 31.1 In brazing, the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true or (b) false? 31.2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically (a) equal to, (b) stronger than, or (c) weaker than the filler metal out of which it is made? 31.3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true or (b) false? 31.4 Best clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0.0025-0.025 mm (0.0001-0.001 in.), (b) 0.025-0.250 mm (0.001-0.010 in.), (c) 0.250-2.50 mm (0.010-0.100 in.), or (d) 2.5-5.0 mm (0.10-0.20 in.)? 31.5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (three best answers): (a) annealing of the base parts is a by-product of the process, (b) dissimilar metals can be joined, (c) less heat and energy required than fusion welding, (d) metallurgical improvements in the base metals, (e) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously, (f) parts can be readily disassembled, and (g) stronger joint than welding? 31.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (two correct answers): (a) dip soldering, (b) infrared soldering, (c) soldering iron, (d) torch soldering, and (e) wave soldering? 31.7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering: (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal, (b) promote wetting of the surfaces, (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process, or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films? 31.8 Which of the following metals are used in solder alloys (four correct answers): (a) aluminum, (b) antimony, (c) gold, (d) iron, (e) lead, (f) nickel, (g) silver, (h) tin, and (i) titanium? 31.9 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true, or (b) false? 31.10 In adhesive bonding, which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend, (b) adherent, (c) adhesive, (d) adhibit, or (e) ad infinitum? 31.11 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true or (b) false? 31.12 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (two best answers): (a) cleavage, (b) peeling, (c) shear, and (d) tension? 31.13 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) have no effect on, (b) increase, or (c) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking?

On January 1, 2014, Lesley Benjamin signed an agreement to operate as a franchisee of Campbell Inc. for an initial franchise fee of $50,000. The amount of $10,000 was paid when the agreement was signed, and the balance is payable in five annual payments of $8,000 each,  beginning January 1, 2015. The agreement provides that the down payment is not refundable and that no future services are required of the franchisor. Lesley Benjamin’s credit rating indicates that she can borrow money at 11% for a loan of this type. Instructions (a) How much should Campbell record as revenue from franchise fees on January 1, 2014? At what amount should Benjamin record the acquisition cost of the franchise on January 1, 2014? (b) What entry would be made by Campbell on January 1, 2014, if the down payment is refundable and substantial future services remain to be performed by Campbell? (c) How much revenue from franchise fees would be recorded by Campbell on January 1, 2014, if: (1) The initial down payment is not refundable, it represents a fair measure of the services already provided, a significant amount of services is still to be performed by Campbell in future periods, and collectibility of the note is reasonably assured? (2) The initial down payment is not refundable and no future services are required by the franchisor, but collection of the note is so uncertain that recognition of the note as an asset is unwarranted? (3) The initial down payment has not been earned and collection of the note is so uncertain that recognition of the note as an asset is unwarranted?

George Hincapie Inc. manufactures cycling equipment. Recently, the vice president of operations of the company has requested construction of a new plant to meet the increasing demand for the company’s bikes. After a careful evaluation of the request, the board of directorshas decided to raise funds for the new plant by issuing $2,000,000 of 11% term corporate bonds on March 1, 2014, due on March 1, 2029, with interest payable each March 1 and September 1. At the time of issuance, the market interest rate for similar financial instruments is 10%. Instructions As the controller of the company, determine the selling price of the bonds.

1.       : Big data analytics programs (which analyze massive data sets to make decisions) use gigantic computing power to quantify trends that would be beyond the grasp of human observers. As the use of this quantitative analysis increases, do you think it may decrease the “humanity of production” in organizations? Why?

Describe the concept of realization for tax purposes.

In Problem 42.4, the design specification on the diameter is 28.0 ± 2.0 mm. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same, what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28.0 mm, determine the value of the process capability index.

An insurance company purchased bonds issued by Hartnett Company two years ago. Today, Hartnett Company has begun to issue junk bonds and is using the funds to repurchase most of its existing stock. Why might the market value of those bonds held by the insurance company be affected by this action? (LO2)

A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25.9 min. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr. Repositioning time = 6 sec, line efficiency = 95%, and balancing efficiency is 93%. How many workers are on the line?

(Threshold Concept 2) 1. Would you ever swap things with friends if both of you did not gain? Explain your answer. (Threshold Concept 2) 2. Give one or two examples of involuntary (i.e. compulsory) economic interaction where one side gains but the other loses. (Threshold Concept 3) 1. If global warming affects all of us adversely, why in a purely market economy would individuals and firms continue with activities that contribute towards global warming? (Threshold Concept 3) 2. In what ways do your own consumption patterns adversely affect other people?

How do business owners create legal entities? Is the process the same for all entities? If not, what are the differences?

There are 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. Each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the correct number of answers reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 32.1 Which of the following are reasons why mechanical assembly is often preferred over other forming processes (two best answers): (a) ease of assembly, (b) ease of disassembly, (c) economies of scale, (d) involves melting of the base parts, (e) no heat affected zone in the base parts, and (f) specialization of labor? 32.2 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by which one of the following processes: (a) cutting the threads, (b) milling the threads, (c) tapping, (d) thread rolling, or (e) turning the threads? 32.3 Which of the following methods and tools are used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (three best answers): (a) arbor press, (b) preload method, (c) sense of feel by a human operator, (d) snap fit, (e) stall-motor wrenches, (f) torque wrench, and (g) use of lockwashers? 32.4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (two best answers): (a) excessive compressive stresses on the head of the fastener due to force applied by the tightening tool, (b) excessive compressive stresses on the shank of the fastener, (c) excessive shear stresses on the shank of the fastener, (d) excessive tensile stresses on the head of the fastener due to force applied by the tightening tool, (e) excessive tensile stresses on the shank of the fastener, and (f) stripping of the internal or external threads? 32.5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly, whereas in an expansion fit, the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly: (a) true or (b) false? 32.6 Advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (three best answers): (a) components can be designed with features to facilitate part mating, (b) ease of disassembly, (c) no heat affected zone, (d) no special tools are required, (e) parts can be assembled quickly, and (f) stronger joint than with most other assembly methods? 32.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true or (b) false? 32.8 From the standpoint of assembly cost, it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true or (b) false? 32.9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (two best answers): (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible, (b) design the product using bolts and nuts to allow for disassembly, (c) design with many different fastener types to maximize design flexibility, (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features, and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part?

Remember the question we asked at the beginning of the Chapter 4 (page 105): ‘Do you ever purchase things irrationally? If so, what are they and why is your behaviour irrational?’ Can you explain this behaviour better in the light of behavioural economics?

1. Assume that in Table 2.1 the total market demand for potatoes increases by 20 per cent at each price – due, say, to substantial increases in the prices of bread and rice. Plot the old and the new demand curves for potatoes. Is the new curve parallel to the old one? 2. The price of strawberries rises and yet it is observed that the sales of strawberries increase. Does this mean that the demand curve for blueberries is upward sloping? Explain.

A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22.2 minutes. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next, and the transfer time = 6 seconds. The workers remain seated along the line. Proportion uptime = 0.90. Determine the balance efficiency.

: Think about the highly publicized safety grounding of Boeing’s 737 MAX jetliner. One observer said that the goal of profit had taken precedence over the goal of safety within the company. Do you think managers can succeed at both profit and safety simultaneously? DOrganizational effectiveness is the degree to which the organization achieves a stated goal or succeeds in accomplishing what it tries to do. Organizational efficiency refers to the amount of resources used to achieve an organizational goal. It is based on how much raw materials, money, and people are necessary for producing a given volume of output. The ultimate responsibility of managers is to achieve high performance, which is the organization’s ability to attain its goals by using resources in an efficient and effective manner. Although efficiency and effectiveness are both important for performance, most people would probably say that effectiveness is the more important concept. The reason is that internal efficiency has no value if it does not enable the organization to achieve its goals and respond to the external environment. On the other hand, an organization that is effective does achieve its goals, by definition. One of these goals should involve continuously increasing efficiency. Managers can and should improve both efficiency and effectiveness simultaneously. As noted above, one of any organization’s primary goals should be to continuously improve efficiency. To the extent that the organization increases its success in achieving this goal, along with others, its effectiveness also improves.

Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47.5 units per hour. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor. The line operates at 95% uptime. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously. The remaining stations have one worker. Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0.2 min/cycle. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance. Determine (a) number of workers, (b) number of workstations, (c) the balancing efficiency, and (d) average manning level.